ISO: 14001:2004

ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?

Q1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies
  1. a) The structure of EMS
  2. b) The working of EMS
  3. c) The behavior of EMS
  4. d) None
Q2. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?
  1. a) Clause 4.1
  2. b) Clause 4.2
  3. c) Clause 4.3
  4. d) Clause 4.5
Q3. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on
  1. a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
  2. b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
  3. c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
  4. d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle
Q4. An environmental system
  1. a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
  2. b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
  3. c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
  4. d) All above
Q5. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 – …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA cycle.
  1. a) Planning
  2. b) Checking
  3. c) Verifying
  4. d) None
Q6. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called
  1. a) Environment
  2. b) Continual Improvement
  3. c) Prevention of Pollution
  4. d) Environmental Aspect
Q7. Which clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its environmental management system’?
  1. a) Clause 4.5
  2. b) Clause 4.3
  3. c) Clause 4.1
  4. d) Clause 4.2
Q8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.
  1. a) Written values
  2. b) Environmental values
  3. c) Physical values
  4. d) Numeric values
Q9. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the concept of
  1. a) End – of – pipe
  2. b) End – of process
  3. c) Reduce creation of pollutants
  4. d) Eliminate waste at source
Q10. The environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be
  1. a) Documented
  2. b) Implemented
  3. c) Maintained
  4. d) All above
Q11. Planning is covered by
  1. a) Clause 4.1
  2. b) Clause 4.2
  3. c) Clause 4.4
  4. d) Clause 4.3
Q12. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall within the …………………… .
  1. a) Undefined scope
  2. b) Defined scope
  3. c) Any scope
  4. d) Predefined procedure
Q13. The most typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves
  1. a) Examination of individual process
  2. b) Investigate the complete process
  3. c) Audition of environmental policy
  4. d) None
Q14. Environmental impacts can be
  1. a) Acute
  2. b) Chronic
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?
  1. a) Clause 4.2
  2. b) Clause 4.2.5
  3. c) Clause 4.3.1
  4. d) Clause 4.5
Q16. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate
  1. a) Beneficial environmental effects
  2. b) Wholly environmental effects
  3. c) Partially environmental effects
  4. d) Adverse environmental effects
Q17. Environmental Impact states that
  1. a) Any change to the process
  2. b) Effect of the climate
  3. c) Any change to the environment
  4. d) Change the overall management system
Q18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system, is
  1. a) Clause 4.4.4
  2. b) Clause 4.5
  3. c) Clause 4.6
  4. d) Clause 4.3
Q19. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with
  1. a) Legal requirements
  2. b) Other requirements
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q20. Who is the responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?
  1. a) ISO 14001 coordinator
  2. b) Environmental manager
  3. c) DNC staff
  4. d) All above
Q21. The legal & other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental aspects may include
  1. a) National & International legal requirements
  2. b) Local governmental legal requirements
  3. c) ISO 14001 : 2004
  4. d) All above
Q22. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in compliance with all identified legal requirements, is
  1. a) Clause 4.5.6
  2. b) Clause 4.5.2
  3. c) Clause 4.3.2
  4. d) Clause 4.1
Q23. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by
  1. a) Environmental Management System
  2. b) Environmental Manager
  3. c) ISO 14001 :2004
  4. d) Environmental Policy
Q24. Example of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are
  1. a) Reduce water use
  2. b) Reduce energy use
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q25. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.
  1. a) What
  2. b) How much
  3. c) Why
  4. d) When
Q26. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the organization discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor should conclude by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?
  1. a) Financial requirements
  2. b) Legal requirements
  3. c) Technological options
  4. d) Operational requirements
Q27. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of
  1. a) 4.2a clause
  2. b) 4.3.2 clause
  3. c) 4.4.2 clause
  4. d) All above
Q28. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to
  1. a) Regulatory compliance
  2. b) Continual improvement
  3. c) Compliance with other voluntary required
  4. d) All above
Q29. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives & targets are to be achieved, is
  1. a) Policy
  2. b) System
  3. c) Time frame
  4. d) Management
Q30. The single most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is
  1. a) Lack of money
  2. b) Availability of employees
  3. c) Bad goodwill
  4. d) Labor
Q31. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to
  1. a) Influence
  2. b) Power
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q32. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal & other requirements. This commitment is supported by
  1. a) Clause 4.3.1
  2. b) Clause 4.3.2
  3. c) Clause 4.3.5
  4. d) Clause 4.4.1
Q33. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in
  1. a) Section 3.17
  2. b) Section 3.16
  3. c) Section 3.15
  4. d) Section 2.17
Q34. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to
  1. a) Internal audit
  2. b) Monitoring & measurement
  3. c) Evaluation of compliance
  4. d) Management review
Q35. In any evaluation of worker competence, who may include
  1. a) Temporary workers
  2. b) Contractors
  3. c) Other working on behalf of an organization
  4. d) All above
Q36. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a
  1. a) Worker label
  2. b) Award
  3. c) License
  4. d) Any credential
Q37. Under which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned with or affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?
  1. a) Section 2.11
  2. b) Section 4.12
  3. c) Section 3.13
  4. d) Section 1.11
Q38. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by
  1. a) EMS Internal audits
  2. b) Operational Control
  3. c) Control of Records
  4. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
Q39. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?
  1. a) Clause 4.5.1
  2. b) Clause 4.5.2
  3. c) Clause 4.5.3
  4. d) Both (a) & (b)
Q40. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels, is referred to as
  1. a) Transaction
  2. b) Communication
  3. c) Deal
  4. d) Transmission
Q41. With regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & function of the organization.
  1. a) External communication
  2. b) Internal communication
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q42. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is
  1. a) Clause 4.4.1
  2. b) Clause 4.2.3
  3. c) Clause 4.1.4
  4. d) Clause 4.3.2
Q43. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is
  1. a) Communicating
  2. b) Conferencing
  3. c) Advertizing
  4. d) Distribution of information
Q44. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?
  1. a) A group of members
  2. b) A program organized at the last of the year
  3. c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
  4. d) A position of rank
Q45. The example of external party for an organization could be
  1. a) Regulatory agencies
  2. b) Community residents
  3. c) Civic associations
  4. d) All above
Q46. The environmental management system documentation shall include
  1. a) The environmental policy
  2. b) Objectives
  3. c) Targets
  4. d) All above
Q47. To establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term communication, which is defined in
  1. a) Clause 4.3.4
  2. b) Clause 4.4.3
  3. c) Clause 4.1.4
  4. d) Clause 4.3.2
Q48. An umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of the EMS & described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved
  1. a) System description
  2. b) Procedure
  3. c) Work instructions
  4. d) Records
Q49. Work instructions provide
  1. a) Detailed information for group
  2. b) Information of EMS
  3. c) Relevant data
  4. d) Detailed information for individuals
Q50. A document explains
  1. a) What must be done
  2. b) Format of the work
  3. c) How should it be done
  4. d) When it should it be done
Q51. ISO 14001 :2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include
  1. a) Environmental policy
  2. b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
  3. c) Operational control procedures
  4. d) All above
Q52. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are  subject to somewhat different controls, are
  1. a) Internal documents
  2. b) External documents
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q53. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is
  1. a) Section 3.11
  2. b) Section 2.10
  3. c) Section 3.5
  4. d) Section 3.4
Q54. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location” (in computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organization, are
  1. a) Internal documents
  2. b) External documents
  3. c) Electronic documents
  4. d) All above
Q55. A document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is called
  1. a) Master lists
  2. b) Controlled copy
  3. c) Uncontrolled copy
  4. d) Validation form
Q56. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are considered
  1. a) Uncontrolled
  2. b) Controlled
  3. c) Current
  4. d) None
Q57. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect
  1. a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
  2. b) The media affected by its interest
  3. c) The purpose of the control
  4. d) All above
Q58. The operations of an organization is affected by its
  1. a) Employees
  2. b) Suppliers
  3. c) Contractors
  4. d) All above
Q59. Creating a new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to fulfill the requirements, imposed by
  1. a) Clause 4.5
  2. b) Clause 4.3.2
  3. c) Clause 4.4.3
  4. d) Clause 4.1.4
Q60. When universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed for disposal / recycle, at
  1. a) Dustbin
  2. b) Recycling center
  3. c) Organization
  4. d) Anywhere
Q61. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider
  1. a) Accidental emission to the air
  2. b) Accidental discharges to the water
  3. c) Accidental discharges to the land
  4. d) All above
Q62. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident & specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is
  1. a) Environmental Management System
  2. b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
  3. c) Integrated Contingency System
  4. d) None
Q63. Clause 4.4.7 is related to
  1. a) Emergency preparedness & response
  2. b) Monitoring & measuring
  3. c) Operational control
  4. d) Control of documents
Q64. Regarding environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report environmental incidents & emergency situations to
  1. a) The Environmental Manager
  2. b) Technical Service Manager
  3. c) Contractor
  4. d) Load Dispatcher
Q65. An organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide
  1. a) What to measure
  2. b) How to measure
  3. c) When to measure
  4. d) All above
Q66. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?
  1. a) Nominal scales
  2. b) Ordinal scales
  3. c) Interval scales
  4. d) Ratio scales
Q67. If adverse environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are better or worse in comparison others?
  1. a) Nominal scales
  2. b) Ordinal scales
  3. c) Interval scales
  4. d) Ratio scales
Q68. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be
  1. a) Reliable
  2. b) Valid
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q69. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of process related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by
  1. a) Clause 4.1.1
  2. b) Clause 4.2.2
  3. c) Clause 4.3.3
  4. d) Clause 4.4.4
Q70. Data, which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether they are effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.
  1. a) Data obtained form ICP
  2. b) Data obtained from EMS
  3. c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
  4. d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques
Q71. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of
  1. a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
  2. b) Compliance review by management
  3. c) Corrective action for any noncompliance
  4. d) All above
Q72. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has access to its legal & other requirements.
  1. a) Internal audits
  2. b) External audit
  3. c) Registration audit
  4. d) None
Q73. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team identified the same noncompliance?
  1. a) Audit team
  2. b) Manager
  3. c) Registrar Audit Team
  4. d) Auditor
Q74. If organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the registrar audit team will question, that
  1. a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
  2. b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q75. Clause, which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic evaluation, is
  1. a) Clause
  2. b) Clause
  3. c) Clause 4.4.2
  4. d) Clause 4.4.3
Q76. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets & periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?
  1. a) Technical Services Manager
  2. b) Satellite point Manager
  3. c) EMS Manager
  4. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
Q77. Preventive action is defined as
  1. a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
  2. b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q78. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with
  1. a) Environmental Management System
  2. b) EMS Audits
  3. c) List of nonconformities
  4. d) None
Q79. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the
  1. a) Conformity
  2. b) Mistake
  3. c) Nonconformity
  4. d) Process
Q80. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.
  1. a) Technical Services Manager
  2. b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
  3. c) Suppliers
  4. d) Environmental Manager/ Designee
Q81. Prevention action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in section
  1. a) Section 3.17
  2. b) Section 3.15
  3. c) Section 3.3
  4. d) None
Q82. ……………………. provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.
  1. a) Data
  2. b) Files
  3. c) Records
  4. d) Diaries
Q83. The ISO 14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept
  1. a) Compliance, training & awareness
  2. b) Monitoring & measurement
  3. c) Internal audit
  4. d) All above
Q84. Internal audit is defined in
  1. a) Clause 4.3.1
  2. b) Clause 4.5.5
  3. c) Clause 4.4.1
  4. d) Clause 4.4.3
Q85. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent
  1. a) Smudging
  2. b) Darkness
  3. c) Readability
Q86. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of record is known as
  1. a) Identifiable
  2. b) Legible
  3. c) Traceable
  4. d) All above
Q87. Which section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?
  1. a) Section 3.14
  2. b) Section 3.17
  3. c) Section 3.1
  4. d) Section 3.4
Q88. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as
  1. a) Environmental record
  2. b) Environmental aspect
  3. c) Information
  4. d) Document
Q89. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.
  1. a) EMS List
  2. b) Employee’s Detail List
  3. c) Records Retention List
  4. d) None
Q90. An environmental management system audit is
  1. a) Environmental performance audit
  2. b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q91. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure conformity with
  1. a) ISO 14001 : 2004
  2. b) An organization’s document
  3. c) Both (a) & (b)
  4. d) None
Q92. The internal audit procedure must address
  1. a) Responsibilities
  2. b) Audit Criteria
  3. c) Frequency
  4. d) All above
Q93. Smaller organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from
  1. a) Corporate headquarters
  2. b) Consortia
  3. c) Consulting firms
  4. d) Sister facilities
Q94. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement, testing, or other means, is
  1. a) Nonconformance
  2. b) Conformance
  3. c) Objective evidence
  4. d) None
Q95. Input to management review shall include
  1. a) Results of internal audits
  2. b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
  3. c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
  4. d) All above
Q96. Management review should be viewed as
  1. a) Strategic
  2. b) Potential
  3. c) Tactical in Nature
  4. d) None

ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms

Q97. Decision – makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority & resources to address recommended improvements, are
  1. a) Managers
  2. b) Employees
  3. c) Contractors
  4. d) Executives
Q98. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is
  1. a) Customer requirements
  2. b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
  3. c) Improved regulatory compliance
  4. d) All above

ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms

Q99. The small organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as
  1. a) Medium enterprises
  2. b) Micro enterprises
  3. c) Mini enterprises
  4. d) Super enterprises

ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms

Q100. Continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by
  1. a) Section 3.1
  2. b) Section 3.14
  3. c) Section 3.17
  4. d) Section 3.2

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